For me, I find it bizarre to call Austen "pre-Victorian" as much as I find it bizarre to call Thomas Warton, Oliver Goldsmith, or even Horace Walpole "pre-Romantic." If the "Romantic Century" begins in 1750, what do we make of Gray, Sterne, Boswell, Equiano, Burke, Barbauld? These writers are distinct from the project of Wordsworth and Coleridge, which has thus far been the place mark of Romanticism. I'm just not buying this whole thing. Certain preoccupations were brought to the writing table that are uniquely mid-century oriented. Yes, Gray is an early voice of the fascination with the morose, solitary, and (unknowingly) psychological, but to say he is a pre-Romantic takes him out of his context and hands him over to an era affected by Revolution, regency, industrial/scientific developments, and urbanite-occupations. Not the nostalgic, neo-classical, anxious, naive, and authorial culture to which he belongs. IF ANYTHING, we should call the Romantics post-Sensibility. If Burke's Sublime is the treatise of the era, especially in the Gothic mode, then perhaps the Romantics were looking back to mid-century to position themselves with a particular aesthetic and sociocultural agenda; Burke was not looking ahead to plain language, ghosts, and the women's right to write. Give me a break.
Sources:
Johnson, Claudia L. "The Novel and the Romantic Century, 1750-1850" European Romantic Review 1 (2000) 12-20.
Wolfson, Susan J. "50-50? Phone a Friend? Ask the Audience? Speculating on a Romantic Century, 1750-1850" European Romantic Review 1 (2000) 1-11.
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